trauma

A 32-year-old female presents with chief complaint of “abdominal pain”. Her pain started 8 hours ago and became severe within the last 30 minutes. Initial vitals demonstrate a blood pressure of 88/48 mm Hg, HR 122 bpm, Temp 36.4 C, and 20 respirations/min. On your physical exam she has tenderness to palpation in the left lower pelvic region with rebound tenderness. You note her hypotension and perform RUSH exam. During your exam you note free fluid in the rectouterine pouch. As you finish your exam, she is now pale, clammy, and minimally responsive to pain with repeat blood pressure 64/33 mm Hg. What is the systematic approach to a patient with signs of massive hemorrhage?

A 70-year-old female with a past medical history of osteoporosis, atrial fibrillation, and hypertension presents with acute thoraco-lumbar back pain after a ground-level fall. She is stable, but she does have pain at the T-12/L-1 region of her back.  She has full motor strength and sensory function in the lower extremities. Her patellar reflexes are 1+ bilaterally, no ankle clonus is noted, and she denies any saddle anesthesia or bowel/bladder incontinence. 

What do you need to know about ABG versus VBG?

This post looks at subarachnoid hemorrhage, including evaluation and management.

A tough case in a rural ED…

How can you optimize your evaluation and management of the unstable patient with pelvic trauma?

Kira Brayan and Jenny Beck-Esmay cover neurogenic shock!

What do you need to know about maxillofacial trauma?

This week 52 in 52 covers the P-CAT trial and pigtail catheters for hemothorax.

A 60-year-old female presents to the ED with an impaled object in her arm. She stabbed herself in the left arm as an act of self-harm, prior to calling EMS. The object was wrapped in gauze by EMS. On ED evaluation, she is stable and alert and oriented. On your primary and secondary evaluation, there is only one injury. Under extensive gauze wrapping, there is a large, serrated knife impaled in the distal aspect of the left flexor forearm. It is superficial and can be easily palpated along the skin. There are no other injuries identified on primary and secondary surveys. She is neurovascularly intact. What is the next step in your evaluation and management?